Gee whiz. I thought paralytic polio or whatever you want to call it was caused by pesticides. But here we are again and again urged to believe it's another big bad virus responsible for causing the disease. In 1960 the WHO reclassified "polio" as acute flaccid paralysis if poliovirus was not found in your system. Thus many cases that…
Gee whiz. I thought paralytic polio or whatever you want to call it was caused by pesticides. But here we are again and again urged to believe it's another big bad virus responsible for causing the disease. In 1960 the WHO reclassified "polio" as acute flaccid paralysis if poliovirus was not found in your system. Thus many cases that used to be called polio were now a brand new disease despite the same symptoms. This is one way they got the polio incidence numbers down and declared that the vaccine worked.
After so many years declaring that "polio" has been eradicated now they're trying to scare everybody with the preposterous idea that it can be transmitted after being found in sewage.
The assumption is that if a huge viral load is found that automatically translates as "causation." Of course there's no proof of that but we just assume it's true as per the dogma of medical dictators (interestingly enough, in the case of Covid they don't even bother about "viral load"; now it's a computer simulation based on small amounts of genetic fragments from unpurified samples).
This link is fascinating. I had no idea that pesticides were the cause of polio. I remember the scare of the epidemic in the 50’s being born in 1945. It was terrifying. My only question is, if it is pesticides why weren’t more children affected. We were all eating the same foods.
1952 was the last year there was a strong incidence of paralytic polio. Around that time DDT was beginning to be discontinued in the US--not because there was a connection between paralysis in humans and pesticides but because too many animals were dying from the DDT that entered their food supply. So DDT was farmed out to third world countries (where many cases of paralysis were reported).
You'll recall that polio only struck in the summer months. Why were there no outbreaks in the winter? Recall that the beaches were continually sprayed with DDT during the summer months.
As far as why some people got sick and others didn't--it could be that certain people ingested a larger dose of the poison. In many families, only one person came down sick--the others untouched.
We were all vulnerable, but some of us were more susceptible due to our individual profiles. Plus we got different exposures.
Some kids ran behind the trucks spraying DDT in suburban neighborhoods, some community pools also sprayed heavily & some moms sprayed DDT into kids' lunch boxes.
Then, paralysis is just a symptom. Paralysis could be caused by toxins, coxsackieviruses, or polio, etc.
I don't believe these "viruses" have individual characteristics which cause specific diseases. The end result is paralysis from some kind of environmental poisoning not "killer" viruses. If you believe that, you'll be running out to take their deadly vaccines.
Correlation ≠ causation. And there's more than one hypothesis about this.
Also, faecal contamination IS one of the ways the polio virus spreads!
There's equally good data and research which postulates that the mass vaccination campaign for DPT/Pertussis was responsible for the polio outbreak of the 1940s/50s.
The polio virus is endemic. Most people will never know they've been in contact with it. 5% may experience flu-like symptoms, and of those 5%, 1 in 1000 will develop paralysis ... which, as we know, subsequent to the introduction of the polio vaccine was reclassified as acute flaccid paralysis.
However, "several studies have shown that injections (for antibiotics or other vaccines) increase susceptibility to polio. In fact, researchers have known since the early 1900s that paralytic poliomyelitis often started at the site of an injection [8,9]. When diphtheria and pertussis vaccines were introduced in the 1940s, cases of paralytic poliomyelitis skyrocketed (Figure 1) [10]. This was documented in Lancet and other medical journals [11-13]. In 1949, the Medical Research Council in Great Britain set up a committee to investigate the matter and ultimately concluded that individuals are at increased risk of paralysis for 30 days following injections; injections alter the distribution of paralysis; and it did not matter whether the injections were subcutaneous or intramuscular [14,15]."
(Miller, Neil Z. The polio vaccine: a critical assessment of its arcane history, efficacy, and long-term health-related consequences. Nov 2004; Medical Veritas The Journal of Medical Truth 1:239-251)
References
[8] Houchaus. Ueber Poliomyelitis acuta. Munch Med Wochenschr 1909;
56:2353–55.
[9] Lambert SM. A yaws campaign and an epidemic of poliomyelitis in West-
ern Samoa. J Trop Med Hyg 1936; 39:41–6.
[10] Lindsay KW, et al. Neurology and Neurosurgery Illustrated. Edin- burgh/London/New York: Churchill Livingston, 1986:100. Figure 15.2. Po- lio incidence rates obtained from National Morbidity Reports.
[11] McCloskey BP. The relation of prophylactic inoculations to the onset of poliomyletis. Lancet, April 18, 1950:659–63.
[12] Geffen DH. The incidence of paralysis occurring in London children within four weeks after immunization. Med Officer 1950;83:137–40.
[13] Martin JK. Local paralysis in children after injections. Arch Dis Child 1950; 25:1–14.
[14] Hill AB, et al. Inoculation and poliomyelitis. A statistical investigation in England and Wales in 1949. British Medical Journal 1950; ii:1–6.
[15] Medical Research Council Committee on Inoculation Procedures and Neu- rological Lesions. Poliomyelitis and prophylactic inoculation. Lancet 1956; ii:1223–31.
I am not disagreeing with you. There seems to be quite a bit of evidence that vaccination contributed to paralytic outbreaks. Isn't that called "provocation polio" where the paralysis begins at the site of the injection? But I think most of the initial outbreaks prior to the vaccination "response," started the ball rolling as Jim West so cogently argues.
Gee whiz. I thought paralytic polio or whatever you want to call it was caused by pesticides. But here we are again and again urged to believe it's another big bad virus responsible for causing the disease. In 1960 the WHO reclassified "polio" as acute flaccid paralysis if poliovirus was not found in your system. Thus many cases that used to be called polio were now a brand new disease despite the same symptoms. This is one way they got the polio incidence numbers down and declared that the vaccine worked.
After so many years declaring that "polio" has been eradicated now they're trying to scare everybody with the preposterous idea that it can be transmitted after being found in sewage.
The assumption is that if a huge viral load is found that automatically translates as "causation." Of course there's no proof of that but we just assume it's true as per the dogma of medical dictators (interestingly enough, in the case of Covid they don't even bother about "viral load"; now it's a computer simulation based on small amounts of genetic fragments from unpurified samples).
Here is a free download of additional information on about the connection between pesticides and polio by the late journalist Janine Roberts. https://jeffreydachmd.com/wp-content/uploads/2014/12/Polio-Virus-Vaccine-Janine-Roberts_Ecologist-2004.pdf
Excellent article. Thank you for sharing it!
This link is fascinating. I had no idea that pesticides were the cause of polio. I remember the scare of the epidemic in the 50’s being born in 1945. It was terrifying. My only question is, if it is pesticides why weren’t more children affected. We were all eating the same foods.
1952 was the last year there was a strong incidence of paralytic polio. Around that time DDT was beginning to be discontinued in the US--not because there was a connection between paralysis in humans and pesticides but because too many animals were dying from the DDT that entered their food supply. So DDT was farmed out to third world countries (where many cases of paralysis were reported).
You'll recall that polio only struck in the summer months. Why were there no outbreaks in the winter? Recall that the beaches were continually sprayed with DDT during the summer months.
As far as why some people got sick and others didn't--it could be that certain people ingested a larger dose of the poison. In many families, only one person came down sick--the others untouched.
Read Jim West's article about pesticides and polio here: https://harvoa.org/polio/overview.htm
Also get a hold of the book Fear of the Invisible by Janine Roberts.
We were all vulnerable, but some of us were more susceptible due to our individual profiles. Plus we got different exposures.
Some kids ran behind the trucks spraying DDT in suburban neighborhoods, some community pools also sprayed heavily & some moms sprayed DDT into kids' lunch boxes.
Then, paralysis is just a symptom. Paralysis could be caused by toxins, coxsackieviruses, or polio, etc.
I don't believe these "viruses" have individual characteristics which cause specific diseases. The end result is paralysis from some kind of environmental poisoning not "killer" viruses. If you believe that, you'll be running out to take their deadly vaccines.
Correlation ≠ causation. And there's more than one hypothesis about this.
Also, faecal contamination IS one of the ways the polio virus spreads!
There's equally good data and research which postulates that the mass vaccination campaign for DPT/Pertussis was responsible for the polio outbreak of the 1940s/50s.
The polio virus is endemic. Most people will never know they've been in contact with it. 5% may experience flu-like symptoms, and of those 5%, 1 in 1000 will develop paralysis ... which, as we know, subsequent to the introduction of the polio vaccine was reclassified as acute flaccid paralysis.
However, "several studies have shown that injections (for antibiotics or other vaccines) increase susceptibility to polio. In fact, researchers have known since the early 1900s that paralytic poliomyelitis often started at the site of an injection [8,9]. When diphtheria and pertussis vaccines were introduced in the 1940s, cases of paralytic poliomyelitis skyrocketed (Figure 1) [10]. This was documented in Lancet and other medical journals [11-13]. In 1949, the Medical Research Council in Great Britain set up a committee to investigate the matter and ultimately concluded that individuals are at increased risk of paralysis for 30 days following injections; injections alter the distribution of paralysis; and it did not matter whether the injections were subcutaneous or intramuscular [14,15]."
(Miller, Neil Z. The polio vaccine: a critical assessment of its arcane history, efficacy, and long-term health-related consequences. Nov 2004; Medical Veritas The Journal of Medical Truth 1:239-251)
References
[8] Houchaus. Ueber Poliomyelitis acuta. Munch Med Wochenschr 1909;
56:2353–55.
[9] Lambert SM. A yaws campaign and an epidemic of poliomyelitis in West-
ern Samoa. J Trop Med Hyg 1936; 39:41–6.
[10] Lindsay KW, et al. Neurology and Neurosurgery Illustrated. Edin- burgh/London/New York: Churchill Livingston, 1986:100. Figure 15.2. Po- lio incidence rates obtained from National Morbidity Reports.
[11] McCloskey BP. The relation of prophylactic inoculations to the onset of poliomyletis. Lancet, April 18, 1950:659–63.
[12] Geffen DH. The incidence of paralysis occurring in London children within four weeks after immunization. Med Officer 1950;83:137–40.
[13] Martin JK. Local paralysis in children after injections. Arch Dis Child 1950; 25:1–14.
[14] Hill AB, et al. Inoculation and poliomyelitis. A statistical investigation in England and Wales in 1949. British Medical Journal 1950; ii:1–6.
[15] Medical Research Council Committee on Inoculation Procedures and Neu- rological Lesions. Poliomyelitis and prophylactic inoculation. Lancet 1956; ii:1223–31.
I am not disagreeing with you. There seems to be quite a bit of evidence that vaccination contributed to paralytic outbreaks. Isn't that called "provocation polio" where the paralysis begins at the site of the injection? But I think most of the initial outbreaks prior to the vaccination "response," started the ball rolling as Jim West so cogently argues.